Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
08.06.2025 07:53
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
You'll usually find your answer there.
I dreamt my mother had died and I cried so much in my dream. What does it mean?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
There's no rule.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
How do you know how physically attractive you actually are?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.